| Math 425-1 | Exam 3 Comments | Fall 2008 |
For a statement of the problems and a summary of the solutions of Exam 3, see Exam 3 Solutions.
1. To prove that if f is integrable on
[a, c] and on
[c, b], then f is integrable
on [a, b] (for
a < c < b).
Comment. See Exercise 6, Section 6.3. This is NOT the same as
Theorem 6.12 on page 150; it is a kind of converse. Theorem 6.12 says that
integrability on the “big” interval implies integrability on
each of the smaller intervals. On the exam, you are to prove that
integrability on each of the smaller intervals implies integrability on the
big interval.
Exercise 6, Section 6.3, was not given explicitly as a homework problem,
but the proof could be given as part of the solution of Exercise 8 in
Section 6.4. It is a direct consequence of the Archimedes-Riemann Theorem
applied to each of the intervals, or the “Cauchy criterion for
integrability”, which is the “necessary and sufficient”
form of Exercise 4 in Section 6.4.
2. To prove that if the integral of a nonnegative continuous
function is zero, then the function is zero.
Comment. This is essentially the same as to Exercise 5 in
Section 6.4, which was assigned for homework. It is important to realize
that this result, and the result in Exercise 5, is NOT necessarily true if
the function is not continuous, and therefore continuity (or a consequence
of continuity) must be used somewhere in the proof. In you give a proof
which does not specifically invoke continuity, or a specific consequence of
continuity, the proof is almost certainly wrong.
3. To prove the differentiability at 0 of a given function defined
by one formula on the rationals, a different formula on the
irrationals.
Comment. There have been several examples of functions defined
in this way, and several examples of functions with the given behavior at
the origin. See, in particular, Exercise 9 in Section 3.7 (which was
assigned as homework) and, especially, Problem 2 on Exam 2 (and the
solution provided). The desired result here is a direct consequence of the
result of Ex. 9 in Sect. 3.7 and can easily be proved directly using the
same technique. Note especially that the best approach here may not be to
use the sequential definition of limit but to use the epsilon-delta
definition. And if you do use the sequential definition, it is still
much easier to use an inequality FIRST, instead of trying to apply
sequences to the two cases given in the definition of the function (as in
Ex. 9 in Sect. 3.7 and in the solution to Problem 2 on Exam 2). See
email of 22 Nov.
4. To prove that a certain polynomial equation has exactly two
solutions.
Comment. There are many examples like this in the exercises in
Section 6.3, some of which were assigned as homework. The proof uses the
Intermediate Value Theorem for continuous functions (NOT a calculator) to
prove that solutions exist and uses the Mean Value Theroem for
differentiable functions (or consequences thereof) to get an upper bound on
the number of solutions. Note that in using the MVT here, one can either
use it directly, as is suggested in the solution posted, or one can use the
consequence that a function with a positive derivative is strictly
increasing -- in this case, applied to the derivative of the given
polynomial function. In any case, the pattern is: IVT (or consequence
thereof) implies existence, MVT (or consequence thereof) implies some kind
of “uniqueness”.
| What has been is what will be, and what has been done is what will be done; there is nothing new under the sun. Is there a thing of which it is said, "See, this is new"? It has already been, in the ages before us. (Ecclesiastes 1: 9-10) |
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